JULY MEETING The big news for this month’s meeting is that Gene Martin’s Lancair 320 made it’s first flight! The ex-Lancair test pilot made the first flights. Tom Gebby has been helping Gene get his 10 hours in for insurance purposes. Gene is already talking about a C/S prop. We had three visitors at our meeting. One of them is Gary Hofberger, who joined our Chapter. He’s just bought a Titan Tornado II. There were 18 Young Eagle Flights given on July 13^th in conjunction with the Sooner Flight Academy. Thanks to all the members who volunteered their time and planes to make this successful. Lonnie Gillespie reported on his Ercoupe. He has all the engine parts and has installed the landing gear, brakes and wheels.

SPECIAL VFR’S July AOPA Pilot. FAR 91.157 has been updated on May 23, 2000 to expand the term of flight visibility to include the visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in takeoff position at a airport that doesn’t have weather reporting capabilities. This allows a pilot to determine whether the visibility minimums of one mile or more is present. Please read the complete FAR for all the particulars.

PROPS by Syd Nelson. Last month I had reported that we tried a prop with 3" less pitch and the results. I was talking to Ken Hollrah and quizzing him on the hows and whys, so Ken sent me part of the paperwork on a course he’d taken through the National Test Pilot’s School. They have been gracious enough to allow me to use part of their text to write the following article. This is only a small portion of one Chapter.

Only the outer 2/3’s of a prop blade generates a thrust and the inner 1/3 is there to provide attachment to the shaft. Designers try to minimize the drag of the inner 1/3 to prevent reverse flow, improve engine cooling and reduce the torque required. A fixed pitched prop only gets peak efficiency at one setting. Most are designed for use in optimum conditions such as cruise or climb and non-optimum conditions are accepted in other flight regimes. The controllable pitch prop similar to early electrically operated props have an infinite number of pitch settings to obtain the most efficient operation in every flight. To efficiently operate the controllable pitch prop, the pilot must be given sufficient data by the airframe and prop manufacturer on power settings, forward speeds and engine RPM.

The constant speed props operates with the desired RPM on the prop governor and uses throttle to adjust the power output to the engine. Once the power is sufficient to drive the prop to the set RPM additional power is absorbed by the prop at the preset RPM by changing it’s pitch angle automatically.

Propeller power increases with blade width, but the efficiency drops off. Two bladed props tend to be 3% more efficient than three bladed props and 7% better than four blades. Increasing the number of blades ensures a smoother operation.

Blade thickness has little effect on propeller performance except in power requirements. Wood props tend to be thicker due to structural requirements than metal props. Metal blades are usually 4-7% more efficient than wood. Thinner metal blades would have a higher critical tip Mach number.

The airfoil sections of propellers are often made with a flat lower surface to facilitate measurement of the twist distribution. Any reasonably good airfoil section will give very nearly the same prop characteristics as the best possible section.

Sweep back and rake of the blades have no appreciable effect n the aerodynamic characteristics of a prop, except that they affect the twist of the blades while operating and pitch. Blades on wooden propellers are often swept back in order to obtain smooth running qualities and to eliminate flutter.

These questions are based on the U.S. FAR’s, but similar regulations exist in most countries. Most of the questions on this quiz can be found in the FAA publication Plane Sense (FAA-H-8083-19).

2. How can a prospective purchaser be assured that an aircraft has a clear title?
a. The FAA will perform a title search for a fee (Currently $150 for aircraft with less than two engines, and $250 for aircraft with two or more engines)
b. Purchase aircraft only from an established aircraft dealer.
c. AVweb offers title searches free of charge to members.
d. Either search the aircraft records yourself, or have it done by an attorney or qualified aircraft title search company.

3. True or False: The Civil Aviation Registry maintained by the FAA records all aircraft liens.
a. True
b. False

4. Which of the following documents should you NOT expect to receive with the purchase of any aircraft?
a. Bill of sale or conditional sales contract.
b. Either AA Form 8100-2, Standard Airworthiness Certificate, or FAA Form 8130-7, Special Airworthiness Certificate
c. Maintenance records
d. Equipment list
e. Appropriate aircraft flight manual and/or Operating Limitations
f. Maintenance manuals and service letters and bulletins

5. What condition(s) must be met for a standard category aircraft to be considered airworthy?
a. The aircraft conforms to its type design (type certificate).
b. The aircraft is in condition for safe operation.
c. Both a and b.

6. Prior to transfer of ownership of any standard category aircraft, what type of inspection is required within the previous 30 days?
a. Emissions inspection
b. 100 hour inspection
c. Annual inspecton
d. Transponder, altimeter, and static system inspection
e. The transfer of ownership does not create the need for any particular inspection.

7. True or False: All surplus U.S. military aircraft are eligible for FAA certification in either STANDARD, RESTRICTED, or LIMITED classifications.
a. True
b. False

8. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the registered owner of an aircraft operating domestically?
a. Having a current Airworthiness Certificate and Certificate of Aircraft Registration in the aircraft.
b. Maintaining the aircraft in an airworthy condition including compliance with all applicable AD's.
c. Assuring that maintenance is properly recorded.
d. Keeping abreast of current regulations concerning the operation and maintenance of the aircraft.
e. Notifying the Civil Aircraft Registry, AFS-750, immediately of any change of permanent mailing address, or of the sale or export of the aircraft.
f. Having a current Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT).
g. Having a current Federal Communications Commission (FCC) Radio Station License in the aircraft.

9. True or False: Accidents involving your aircraft must be reported to the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) as required by Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), Part 830.
a. True
b. False

10. True or False: The FAA requires proof of liability insurance before you an register an aircraft.
a. True
b. False

11. How does the new owner of an aircraft obtain a Certificate of Registration?
a. The previous owner (or aircraft dealer or bank or loan company) is responsible for obtaining this for the new owner.
b. If the information on the Aircraft Bill of Sale is identical to the data inscribed on the manufacturer's data plate affixed to the aircraft fuselage, the FAA will automatically issue a Certificate of Registration within 180 days. If the information on the Aircraft Bill of Sale is NOT identical to the information on the data plate, then a new data plate must be obtained from the manufacturer prior to submitting the Aircraft Bill of Sale to the FAA.
c. The new owner should immediately submit evidence of aircraft ownership (such as AC Form 8050-2, Aircraft Bill of Sale) and an AC Form 8050-1, Aircraft Registration Application, and a $5 registration fee to the FAA, Civil Aviation Registry, and keep the pink copy of the Aircraft Registration Application, until receipt of the Certificate of Aircraft Registration, AC Form 8050-3. The pink copy is good for 90 days and is legal only in the United States.

12. What aircraft are NOT required to have annual inspections within the preceding 12 calendar months in order to be operated?
a. Large (over 12,500 pounds) airplanes
b. Turbojets
c. Turbo-propeller powered multi-engine airplanes
d. Airplanes for which the owner or operator complies with progressive maintenance requirements.
e. All of the above.

13. For what type of operation(s) is it required that the altimeter, altitude encoder, and related system be tested and inspected in the preceding 24 calendar months?
a. Any operation, VFR or IFR.
b. Any night operation, VFR or IFR
c. Any IFR operation
d. Any IFR operation in controlled airspace
e. None of the above

14. When a mechanic tests and inspects each static pressure system, each altimeter, and each automatic pressure altitude reporting system, in accordance with FAR 91.411, what information is NOT required to be entered into the aircraft records?
a. A description of the work
b. The maximum altitude to which the altimeter was tested
c. The maximum airspeed to which the airspeed indicator was tested
d. The date and signature of the person approving the aircraft for return to service.

ANSWERS: 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. F 5. C 6. E 7. B 8. G 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. E

13.D 14. C 15. C 16.C

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Short Final...

It was a foggy, busy "rush-hour" morning at LaGuardia. A US Air
flight was taxiing to the active when they made a wrong turn and came
nose-to-nose with a United 727.

The irate ground controller (a woman) lashed out at the US Air crew,
screaming and shouting on the ground control frequency. She ended her
tirade with, "You can expect progressive taxi instructions in about a
half hour, and I want you to go exactly where I tell you, when I tell
you, and how I tell you. You got that, US Air?"

The humbled crew responded: "Yes Ma'am."

The frequency went terribly silent, and no one wanted to engage the
irate ground controller in her current state. Finally, after what
appeared to be an eternity, an unknown captain from another airline,
came up on the frequency. "Wasn't I married to you, once?" he asked.